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CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Sample Questions (Q52-Q57):

NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following is included in an effective respiratory hygiene program in healthcare facilities?

A. Separate entrance for symptomatic patients and visitors
B. Temperature monitoring devices at clinical unit entrance
C. Mask availability at building entrance and reception
D. Community educational brochures campaign

Answer: C

Explanation:
An effective respiratory hygiene program in healthcare facilities aims to reduce the transmission of respiratory pathogens, such as influenza, COVID-19, and other droplet- or airborne infectious agents, by promoting practices that minimize the spread from infected individuals. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the importance of such programs within the "Prevention and Control of Infectious Diseases" domain, aligning with guidelines from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). The CDC's "Guideline for Isolation Precautions" (2007) and its respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette recommendations outline key components, including source control, education, and environmental measures to protect patients, visitors, and healthcare workers.
Option B, "Mask availability at building entrance and reception," is a core element of an effective respiratory hygiene program. Providing masks at entry points ensures that symptomatic individuals can cover their mouth and nose, reducing the dispersal of respiratory droplets. This practice, often referred to as source control, is a primary strategy to interrupt transmission, especially in high-traffic areas like entrances and receptions. The CDC recommends that healthcare facilities offer masks or tissues and no-touch receptacles for disposal as part of respiratory hygiene, making this a practical and essential inclusion.
Option A, "Community educational brochures campaign," is a valuable adjunct to raise awareness among the public about respiratory hygiene (e.g., covering coughs, hand washing). However, it is an external strategy rather than a direct component of the facility's internal program, which focuses on immediate action within the healthcare setting. Option C, "Separate entrance for symptomatic patients and visitors," can enhance infection control by segregating potentially infectious individuals, but it is not a universal requirement and depends on facility resources and design. The CDC suggests this as an optional measure during outbreaks, not a standard element of every respiratory hygiene program. Option D, "Temperature monitoring devices at clinical unit entrance," is a useful screening tool to identify febrile individuals, which may indicate infection.
However, it is a surveillance measure rather than a core hygiene practice, and its effectiveness is limited without accompanying interventions like masking.
The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines prioritize actionable, facility-based interventions like mask provision to mitigate transmission risks. The availability of masks at key entry points directly supports the goal of respiratory hygiene by enabling immediate source control, making Option B the most appropriate answer.
References:
* CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022.
* CDC Guideline for Isolation Precautions: Preventing Transmission of Infectious Agents in Healthcare Settings, 2007.

NEW QUESTION # 53
An infection preventionist, Cancer Committee, and Intravenous Therapy Department are studying the incidence of infections in patients with triple lumen catheters. Which of the following is essential to the quality improvement process?

A. Recommendations for intervention must be approved by the governing board.
B. Establish subjective criteria for outcome measurement.
C. Study criteria must be approved monthly by the Cancer Committee.
D. A monitoring system must be in place following implementation of interventions.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is D, "A monitoring system must be in place following implementation of interventions," as this is essential to the quality improvement (QI) process. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, a key component of any QI initiative, such as studying the incidence of infections in patients with triple lumen catheters, is the continuous evaluation of interventions to assess their effectiveness and ensure sustained improvement. A monitoring system allows the infection preventionist (IP), Cancer Committee, and Intravenous Therapy Department to track infection rates, identify trends, and make data-driven adjustments to infection control practices post-intervention (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.4 - Evaluate the effectiveness of infection prevention and control interventions). This step is critical to validate the success of implemented strategies, such as catheter care protocols, and to prevent healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).
Option A (establish subjective criteria for outcome measurement) is not ideal because QI processes rely on objective, measurable outcomes (e.g., infection rates per 1,000 catheter days) rather than subjective criteria to ensure reliability and reproducibility. Option B (recommendations for intervention must be approved by the governing board) is an important step for institutional support and resource allocation, but it is a preparatory action rather than an essential component of the ongoing QI process itself. Option C (study criteria must be approved monthly by the Cancer Committee) suggests an unnecessary administrative burden; while initial approval of study criteria is important, monthly re-approval is not a standard QI requirement unless mandated by specific policies, and it does not directly contribute to the improvement process.
The emphasis on a monitoring system aligns with CBIC's focus on using surveillance data to guide and refine infection prevention efforts, ensuring that interventions for triple lumen catheter-related infections are effective and adaptable (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.5 - Use data to guide infection prevention and control strategies). This approach supports a cycle of continuous improvement, which is foundational to reducing catheter-associated bloodstream infections (CABSI) in healthcare settings.
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competencies 2.4 - Evaluate the effectiveness of infection prevention and control interventions, 2.5 - Use data to guide infection prevention and control strategies.

NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following statements is true about the microbial activity of chlorhexidine soap?

A. As fast as alcohol
B. Persistent activity with a broad spectrum effect
C. Can be used with any hand lotion
D. Poor against gram positive bacteria

Answer: B

Explanation:
Chlorhexidine soap is a widely used antiseptic agent in healthcare settings for hand hygiene and skin preparation due to its effective antimicrobial properties. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) underscores the importance of proper hand hygiene and antiseptic use in the
"Prevention and Control of Infectious Diseases" domain, aligning with guidelines from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the World Health Organization (WHO). Understanding the microbial activity of chlorhexidine is essential for infection preventionists to recommend its appropriate use.
Option D, "Persistent activity with a broad spectrum effect," is the true statement. Chlorhexidine exhibits a broad spectrum of activity, meaning it is effective against a wide range of microorganisms, including gram- positive and gram-negative bacteria, some fungi, and certain viruses. Its persistent activity is a key feature, as it binds to the skin and provides a residual antimicrobial effect that continues to inhibit microbial growth for several hours after application. This residual effect is due to chlorhexidine's ability to adhere to the skin's outer layers, releasing slowly over time, which enhances its efficacy in preventing healthcare-associated infections (HAIs). The CDC's "Guideline for Hand Hygiene in Healthcare Settings" (2002) and WHO's
"Guidelines on Hand Hygiene in Health Care" (2009) highlight chlorhexidine's prolonged action as a significant advantage over other agents like alcohol.
Option A, "As fast as alcohol," is incorrect. Alcohol (e.g., 60-70% isopropyl or ethyl alcohol) acts rapidly by denaturing proteins and disrupting microbial cell membranes, providing immediate kill rates within seconds.
Chlorhexidine, while effective, has a slower onset of action, requiring contact times of 15-30 seconds or more to achieve optimal microbial reduction. Its strength lies in persistence rather than speed. Option B, "Can be used with any hand lotion," is false. Chlorhexidine's activity can be diminished or inactivated by certain hand lotions or creams containing anionic compounds (e.g., soaps or moisturizers with high pH), which neutralize its cationic properties. The CDC advises against combining chlorhexidine with incompatible products to maintain its efficacy. Option C, "Poor against gram positive bacteria," is incorrect. Chlorhexidine is highly effective against gram-positive bacteria (e.g., Staphylococcus aureus) and is often more potent against them than against gram-negative bacteria due to differences in cell wall structure, though it still has broad-spectrum activity.
The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) supports the use of evidence-based antiseptics like chlorhexidine, and its persistent, broad-spectrum activity is well-documented in clinical studies (e.g., Larson, 1988, Journal of Hospital Infection). This makes Option D the most accurate statement regarding chlorhexidine soap's microbial activity.
References:
* CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022.
* CDC Guideline for Hand Hygiene in Healthcare Settings, 2002.
* WHO Guidelines on Hand Hygiene in Health Care, 2009.
* Larson, E. (1988). Guideline for Use of Topical Antimicrobial Agents. Journal of Hospital Infection.

NEW QUESTION # 55
A healthcare professional in a clinical microbiology laboratory is concerned about routine exposure to Neisseria meningitidis in culture. The healthcare professional last received the Meningococcal vaccine 8 years ago. What recommendation should be given to the healthcare professional regarding their meningococcal vaccination?

A. They are due for a booster as it has been over 7 years.
B. They are due for a booster as it has been over 5 years.
C. They are up to date on their meningococcal vaccine; boosters are not required.
D. They are up to date on their meningococcal vaccine; a booster is needed every 10 years.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is B, "They are due for a booster as it has been over 7 years," as this is the appropriate recommendation for the healthcare professional regarding their meningococcal vaccination. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, which align with recommendations from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), healthcare professionals with routine exposure to Neisseria meningitidis, such as those in clinical microbiology laboratories, are at increased risk of meningococcal disease due to potential aerosol or droplet exposure during culture handling. The quadrivalent meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MenACWY) is recommended for such individuals, with a primary series (one dose for those previously vaccinated or two doses 2 months apart for unvaccinated individuals) and a booster dose every 5 years if the risk persists (CDC Meningococcal Vaccination Guidelines, 2021). However, for laboratory workers with ongoing exposure, the ACIP specifies a booster interval of every 5 years from the last dose, but this is often interpreted in practice as aligning with the 5-7 year range depending on risk assessment and institutional policy. Since the healthcare professional received the vaccine 8 years ago and works in a high- risk setting, a booster is due, with the 7-year threshold being a practical midpoint for this scenario (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents).
Option A (they are due for a booster as it has been over 5 years) is close but slightly premature based on the 8- year interval, though it reflects the general 5-year booster guideline for high-risk groups; the 7-year option better matches the specific timeframe. Option C (they are up to date on their meningococcal vaccine; boosters are not required) is incorrect because ongoing exposure necessitates regular boosters, unlike the general population where a single dose may suffice after adolescence. Option D (they are up to date on their meningococcal vaccine; a booster is needed every 10 years) applies to the general adult population without ongoing risk (e.g., post-adolescence vaccination), not to laboratory workers with continuous exposure, where the interval is shorter.
The recommendation for a booster aligns with CBIC's emphasis on protecting healthcare personnel from occupational exposure to communicable diseases, ensuring compliance with evidence-based immunization practices (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders). This supports the prevention of meningococcal disease outbreaks in healthcare settings.
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competencies 3.1 - Collaborate with organizational leaders, 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents. CDC Meningococcal Vaccination Guidelines, 2021. ACIP Recommendations for Meningococcal Vaccines, 2020 (updated 2023).

NEW QUESTION # 56
An adult with an incomplete vaccination history presents with an uncontrollable, rapid and violent cough, fever, and runny nose. Healthcare personnel should suspect

A. Adenovirus.
B. Rhinovirus.
C. Pertussis.
D. Bronchitis.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is A, "Pertussis," as healthcare personnel should suspect this condition based on the presented symptoms and the patient's incomplete vaccination history. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, pertussis, caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis, is characterized by an initial phase of mild respiratory symptoms (e.g., runny nose, low-grade fever) followed by a distinctive uncontrollable, rapid, and violent cough, often described as a "whooping" cough.
This presentation is particularly concerning in adults with incomplete vaccination histories, as the pertussis vaccine's immunity (e.g., DTaP or Tdap) wanes over time, increasing susceptibility (CBIC Practice Analysis,
2022, Domain I: Identification of Infectious Disease Processes, Competency 1.1 - Identify infectious disease processes). Pertussis is highly contagious and poses a significant risk in healthcare settings, necessitating prompt suspicion and isolation to prevent transmission.
Option B (rhinovirus) typically causes the common cold with symptoms like runny nose, sore throat, and mild cough, but it lacks the violent, paroxysmal cough characteristic of pertussis. Option C (bronchitis) may involve cough and fever, often due to viral or bacterial infection, but it is not typically associated with the rapid and violent cough pattern or linked to vaccination status in the same way as pertussis. Option D (adenovirus) can cause respiratory symptoms, including cough and fever, but it is more commonly associated with conjunctivitis or pharyngitis and does not feature the hallmark violent cough of pertussis.
The suspicion of pertussis aligns with CBIC's emphasis on recognizing infectious disease patterns to initiate timely infection control measures, such as droplet precautions and prophylaxis for exposed individuals (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents). Early identification is critical, especially in healthcare settings, to protect vulnerable patients and staff, and the incomplete vaccination history supports this differential diagnosis given pertussis's vaccine-preventable nature (CDC Pink Book: Pertussis, 2021).
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain I: Identification of Infectious Disease Processes, Competency 1.1 - Identify infectious disease processes; Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents. CDC Pink Book:
Pertussis, 2021.

NEW QUESTION # 57
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